Solved Question Paper of Airport Authority of India NER
CBT held on 25.09.2022
Test Date 25/09/2022
Test Time 4:30 PM – 6:30 PM
Post : Sr. Asstt.(Finance)
Section :General Knowledge
Q.1 Which of the following is a book by Sharad Pawar?
- Matters Of Discretion: An Autobiography
- One Life Is Not Enough
- My Country My Life
- On My Terms: From the Grassroots to the Corridors of Power
Q.2 Winners of the (main) Sahitya Akademi Awards receive an amount of _____ as prizemoney, as of 2022.
- Rs. 2 lakhs
- Rs. 1 lakh
- Rs. 10 lakhs
- Rs. 5 lakhs
Q.3 Badminton player PV Sindhu defeated __________ to win the women’s singles title at the Singapore Open 2022 BWF Super 500 tournament in July 2022.
- Tai Tzu Ying
- He Bing Jiao
- Wang Zhi Yi
- Chen Yu Fei
Q.4 Which of the following is CORRECTLY paired?
- Lactic acid – Tamarind
- Acetic acid – Curd
- Tartaric acid – Vinegar
- Ascorbic acid – Oranges
Q.5 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
- Cells without a nuclear membrane are called prokaryotic cells.
- Plant cells differ from animal cells in having an additional layer around the cell membrane termed cell wall.
- Animal cells have a big central vacuole unlike a number of small vacuoles in plant cells.
- Nucleus of a cell is separated from cytoplasm by a nuclear membrane.
Q.6 Crescent shaped sand dunes with both points or wings directed away from wind direction, are called ‘_____’.
- Barchans
- Seifs
- longitudinal dunes
- transverse dunes
Q 7. ______ of the Constitution of India states that ‘enforcement of any disability arising out of ‘Untouchability’ shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law’.
- Article 15
- Article 16
- Article 18
- Article 17
Q.8 Total budget expenditure – Total budget receipts Excluding borrowings = ____.
1.Gross primary deficit
2. Net primary deficit
3. Fiscal deficit
4. Revenue deficit
Q.9 Which of the following gives only two monosaccharide molecules on hydrolysis?
1. Maltose
2. Starch
3. Glycogen
4. Cellulose
Section : General Intelligence
Q.1 Seven lawyers O, P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting in a straight row, facing north. U sits at the immediate left of T. Q sits at the immediate right of R. Only T sits between P and U.S, at the extreme left end of the row, sits at the immediate left of O. T sits second to the right of O. Who sits at the immediate left of R?
1. Q
2. P
3. S
4. O
Q.2 A queue of 60 students of a class is standing in a straight row facing north during morning assembly time. Punit is 33rd from the right end while Chaudery is 35th from the left end. How many students stand between Punit and Chaudery?
1. 4
2. 6
3. 7
4. 5
Q.3 Eight classmates with the initials C, E, H, K, O, T, V and X are sitting around a circular table, not necessarily in the same order, facing the centre and at equal distance to each other. V sits exactly in between O and C. X sits exactly in between K and E. H sits exactly in between O and E. T sits at the immediate left of K. V sits at the immediate right of O. Who sits at the immediate left of T?
1. K
2. H
3. C
4. V
Q.4 In a certain code language, ‘HONEY’ is written as ‘IQQID’ and ‘SWEET’ is written as ‘TYHIY’. How will ‘BLACK’ be written in that language?
1. CNDGO
2. CNDGP
3. CNDHP
4. CNEGP
Q.5 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark(?) in the following series. 3, 8, 14, 30, 58, ?
1. 114
2. 120
3. 118
4. 116
Q.6 Given below is a statement followed by two possible courses of actions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of it, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing.
Statement: This city has experienced a drastic climate change over the period of twenty years and now, the monsoon season barely last for a week.
Courses of action:
I. The government must promote development of forest areas in and around the city.
II. The government must hire eligible people in the police department.
1. Only II follows
2. Neither I nor II follows
3. Only I follow
4. Both I and II follow
Q.7 Select the term from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
AB1, CE9, GJ25, MQ49, ?
1. UA86
2. UZ81
3. UZ100
4. UZ64
Q.8 Each of A, B, C, D, E, F and G has to leave the country to visit Paris on a different day of the week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week. E will leave the country exactly between B and C. F will leave the country between G and A.D will leave the country immediately before G. C will leave the country immediately after E. D will leave the country on Thursday. Who will leave the country on Sunday?
1. G
2. F
3. A
4. E
Q.9 Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the one that is different.
1. KPJR
2. GTEV
3. SHQJ
4. ZAXC
Section : General Aptitude
Q.1 The average marks of 15 students were 90. But later it was found that the score of one student was wrongly entered as 58 instead of 85. What is the correct average of their score?
1. 91.8
2. 90.7
3. 90.9
4. 91.9
Q.2 The salaries of A, B and C are in ratio 3:5: 7. If their salaries are increased by 20%, 10% and 20%, respectively, then what will be the new ratio of their respective salaries?
1. 36: 53: 86
2. 36: 55: 84
3. 33: 48: 82
4. 36: 57: 83
Q.3 In a cricket match, the average runs scored by 5 batsmen is 63. If the runs scored by 4 batsmen are 69, 54, 37 and 28, respectively, then how many runs did the 5th batsman score?
1. 120
2. 116
3. 125
4. 127
Q.4 The area of the base of a right circular cone is 64π cm² and its height is 16 cm. What is the slant height in cm?
1. 24
2. 12√5
3. 8√5
4. 21
Q.5 If x = √(0.793)² + (0.793) × (0.207) × 2 + (0.207)², y = (32.9)2-(11.6)2 21.3 and z = √4.41 x 0.49,
then what is the value of x + y + z?
1. 45.68
2. 44.65
3. 46.97
4. 48.23
Q.6 Which of the following equations is correct?
1. Neither I nor II
2. Only I
3. Only II
4. Both I and II
Q.7 To complete a wall, A alone takes 40% more time than B alone. If together they complete the wall in 20 days, then how many days will A alone take to complete it?
1. 48
2. 35
3. 30
4. 32
Q.8 Two students A and B start from P and Q, respectively. Both start moving towards each other at the same time. They meet for the first time at point R, which is 200 metres from P. After reaching Q and P, respectively, they turn around and continue moving. They meet again at a point S, which is 100 metres away from Q. Assume that they maintain constant pace throughout their journey. What is the distance between P and Q in metres?
1. 600
2. 450
3. 400
4. 500
Q.9 If the edge of a cube is increased by 5 cm, the volume will increase by 2375 cm³. What is the original length of each edge of the cube in cm?
1. 12
2. 9
3. 11
4. 10
Section : English
Q.1 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given proverb.
Beware of Greeks bearing gifts.
1. Don’t trust enemies who bring you gifts
2. Always trust enemies who bring you gifts
3. Beat your enemies who bring you gifts
4. Always take gifts from enemies
Q.2 Choose the most appropriate idiom for the underlined part of the given sentence.
He was unable to give a satisfied explanation for the deficit in the firm’s bank balance.
1. Account on
2. Account for
3. Account at
4. Account of
Q.3 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
It rained / all Monday, / but stopped /at the night.
1. at the night.
2. It rained
3. all Monday,
4. but stopped
Q.4 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
Shakespeare say, / “All that / glitters is / not gold.”
1. Shakespeare say,
2. “All that
3. glitters is
4. not gold.”
Q.5 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
Ravi’s income / is fewer than / Rupees 10,000 / a month.
1. a month.
2. Ravi’s income
3. Rupees 10,000
4. is fewer than
Q.6 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
The farmers of Shamli will _______ working in the field since morning.
1. have been
2. had being
3. have being
4. had been
Q.7 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
The reason why I don’t like my sister is ________ she has cheated me over property dispute.
1. with
2. account
3. that
4. for
Q.8 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Equivocal
1. Puzzling
2. Atrocious
3. Evasive
4. Definite
Q.9 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.
The driver was bewildered by the conflicting road signs on the hilly road.
1. Surprised
2. Shocked
3. Intimated
4. Enlightened
Section : Domain Questions
Q.1 Value of an asset may be reduced to zero in the ____ method, if depreciation is charged throughout the life of the asset.
1. straight line
2. sinking fund
3. diminishing balance
4. insurance policy
Q.2 Which of the following statements are true regarding revenue expenditure?
(i) It is incurred for earning profit.
(ii) It is an asset account.
(iii) It is shown in the balance sheet.
(iv) It is incurred for running business.
1. Statements (i), (ii) and (iv)
2. Statements (iii) and (iv) only
3. Statements (i) and (ii) only
4. Statements (i) and (iv) only
Q.3 Which Section of the Income Tax Act, 1961, defines retrenchment compensation?
1. 10(10B)
2. 10(10)
3. 10(10A)
4. 10
Q.4 As per Section ______ of the Income Tax Act, 1961, it is compulsory for companies and firms to file a return of income or loss for the previous year on or before the due date in the prescribed form.
1. 139(4)
2. 139(2)
3. 139(1)
4. 139(3)
Q.5 Which of the following statements regarding a promissory note is FALSE?
1. It does not need acceptance by the drawee.
2. It has to be stamped in any case.
3. It is a promise to pay.
4. It has three parties.
Q.6 Which of the following are considered as retirement benefits for an employee?
(i) Pension
(ii) Rent free accommodation
(iii) Leave encashment
(iv) Gratuity
(v) Retrenchment compensation
1. (i), (iii) and (v) only
2. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
3. (i), (iii), (iv) and (v) only
4. (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) only
Q.7 The term ‘audit’ has been derived from the Latin word ‘___’ which means ‘to listen’.
1. aadire
2. aedire
3. audire
4. aidure
Q.8 Which of the following errors will NOT affect the agreement of a Trial Balance?
(i) Errors of partial omission
(ii) Errors of principle
(iii) Compensating errors
(iv) Errors of casting
1. (i) and (ii) only
2. (i), (iii) and (iv) only
3. (i), (ii) and (iii) only
4. (ii) and (iii) only
Q.9 Match the following columns regarding TDS from payments to contractor or sub-contractors under Section 194C of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
| Assessee | Rate of TDS |
| (1) If the recipient is an individual/HUF contractor/sub- contractors | (A) Nil |
| (2) If the recipient is other than individual/HUF contractors/sub-contractors | (B) 1% |
| (3) If the recipient is a transport operator and he has furnished his PAN to the payer. | (C) 2% |
1. 1-C, 2-A, 3-B
2. 1-B, 2-C, 3-A
3. 1-B, 2-A, 3-C
4. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C
Q.10 Which of the following items is considered as a fixed asset?
1. Stock
2. Bank
3. Debtor
4. Furniture
Q.11 Overdraft as per cash book is 10,000. Cheques deposited but not credited 2,500 and cheques issued but not encashed 3,500. What is the balance as per passbook?
1. Favourable balance 9,000
2. Overdraft ₹11,000
3. Overdraft ₹9,000
4. Favourable balance 11,000
Q.12 Which of the following ledgers in a self-balancing ledger system contains all the remaining accounts i.e. other than trade debtors and trade creditors?
1. Sales ledger
2. General ledger
3. Stock ledger
4. Purchase ledger
Q.13 Bank balance as per cash book is 20,000. Out of the cheques sent for collection amounting to 15,100, cheques for 3,000 were not collected by the bank. The passbook balance is ____ .
1. ₹23,000
2. ₹35,100
3. ₹32,100
4. ₹17,000
Q.14 Pass the journal entry to rectify the following error, using the Suspense Account.
*Goods of the value of 3,000 returned by Sharma were entered in the sales book and posted therefrom to the credit of his account.
1. Sales Return a/c Dr. ₹ 3,000
To Suspense a/c 3,000
2. Sales a/c Dr. 3,000
Sales return a/c Dr. 3,000
To Suspense a/c 6,000
3. Sales a/c Dr. 3,000
To Suspense a/c 3,000
4. Sales a/c Dr. 3,000
Suspense a/c Dr. 3,000
To Sales return a/c 6,000
Q.15 The double account system is a method of presenting the annual final accounts/annual financial statements of which of the following?
(i) Public utility undertakings
(ii) Railways
(iii) Electricity
(iv) Banking
1. (ii) only
2. (i) and (iv) only
3. (i), (ii) and (iii) only
4. (iii) only
Q.16 _____ a bill of exchange means taking the amount from a bank against the bill before its due date.
1. Renewing
2. Discounting
3. Accommodating
4. Trading
Q.17 Net sales for the year ended 31 March 2022 are 9,00,000. If the gross profit is 30% on sales, find the cost of goods sold.
1. 6,30,000
2. 6,20,000
3. 6,00,000
4. 6,10,000
Q.18 Which of the following statements are correct/incorrect regarding a bill of exchange?
(i) If the maturity date falls on a day which is a public holiday, the maturity date of the bill shall be the preceding business day.
(ii) If the maturity date falls on a day which is a public holiday, the maturity date of the bill shall be the succeeding business day.
1. Statement (i) is incorrect and (ii) is correct.
2. Statement (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect.
3. Both statements (i) and (ii) are incorrect
4. Both statements (i) and (ii) are correct
Q.19 Amount of 50,000 spent to increase the seating capacity of a cinema hall is an example of:
1. deferred revenue expenditure
2. revenue expenditure
3. nominal expenditure
4. capital expenditure
Q.20 Which of the following statements are true/false regarding the Bank Reconciliation Statement?
(i) Bank Reconciliation Statement if started with debit means a favourable balance as per cash book.
(ii) Bank Reconciliation Statement if started with credit means an unfavourable balance as per cash book.
1. Statement (i) is false and (ii) is true.
2. Statement (i) is true and (ii) is false.
3. Both statements (i) and (ii) are false.
4. Both statements (i) and (ii) are true.
Q.21 What is the maximum exemption an employee can avail on compensation received on Voluntary Retirement?
1. 2,00,000
2. 10,00,000
3. 5,00,000
4. 3,00,000
Q.22 Match the following columns.
| Column A | Column B |
| (i) Provisions | (A) When the purpose for which the reserve is created is not specified |
| (ii) General reserve | (B) Profits prior to incorporation |
| (iii) Capital reserves | (C) Dividend equalisation reserve |
| (iv) Specific reserve | (D) Charge against profit |
1. (i)-A, (ii)-D, (iii)-B, (iv)-C
2. (i)-C, (ii)-A, (iii)-B, (iv)-D
3. (i)-B, (ii)-A, (iii)-D, (iv)-C
4. (i)-D, (ii)-A, (iii)-B, (iv)-C
Q.23 The main objective of an audit is to determine whether the financial statements present a ____ of the financial position and financial performance of a business during the period.
1. true and legal view
2. true and fair view
3. true and sensible view
4. true and reasonable view
Q.24 Under Section 192A of the Income Tax Act, 1961, tax is not deductible if ‘taxable premature withdrawal from Employees Provident Fund Scheme’ is less than __.
1. 10,000
2. 50,000
3. 1,00,000
4. 25,000
Q.25 Which of the following transactions are NOT recorded in the Branch Account under the debtor method?
(i) Opening balances of Branch assets
(ii) Bad debt
(iii) Discount allowed
(iv) Opening balances of Branch liabilities
(v) Loss of stock
1. (i), (ii), (iii) and (v) only
2. (ii), (iii) and (v) only
3. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
4. (i), (ii) and (iii) only
Q.26 Under what headings will you show the following items in the Balance Sheet of a company?
(i) Goodwill
(ii) Loose tools
1. (i) Non-current assets
(ii) Non-current assets
2. (i) Current assets
(ii) Non-current assets
3. (i) Current assets
(ii) Current assets
4. (i) Non-current assets
(ii) Current assets
Q.27 Which of the following statements are true/false?
(i) Capital expenditure is that expenditure that gives benefit of enduring nature.
(ii) Revenue expenditure is that expenditure that gives benefit of enduring nature.
1. Statement (i) is false and (ii) is true.
2. Statement (i) is true and (ii) is false.
3. Both statements (i) and (ii) are false.
4. Both statements (i) and (ii) are true.
Q.28 Which of the following are considered as subsidiary objectives of auditing?
(i) Detection of errors
(ii) Detection of frauds
(iii) Prevention of errors
(iv) Prevention of frauds
1. (i) and (iii) only
2. (i), (ii) and (iii) only
3. (ii) and (iii) only
4. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Q.29 Match the following columns.
| Column A | Column B |
| (i) Straight line method | (A) Declines year after year |
| (ii) Written down value method | (B) Original cost |
| (iii) Causes of depreciation | (C) Extraction of natural resources |
| (iv) Depletion | (D) Passage of Time |
1. (i)-A, (ii)-B, (iii)-D, (iv)-C
2. (i)-D, (ii)-A, (iii)-B, (iv)-C
3. (i)-C, (ii)-A, (iii)-D, (iv)-B
4. (i)-B, (ii)-A, (iii)-D, (iv)-C
Q.30 Match the following columns.
| Column A | Column B |
| (1) 80-IA | (a) Deduction in respect of profits and gains derived by an eligible start-up. |
| (2) 80-IAB | (b) Deduction in respect of profits and gains by an undertaking engaged in development of a Special Economic Zone. |
| (3) 80-IAC | (c) Deduction in respect of profits and gains from industrial undertaking or enterprises engaged in infrastructure development. |
1. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b
2. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
3. 1-c, 2-b, 3-a
4. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c
updating……………
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